Why does Kelly maximise $E [\log\space G]$ rather than simply $E [G]$?

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the Kelly criterion derives the optimal fraction of capital to invest in each trade, by maximising the expectation $\mathbb {E} [\log G]$. Why did Kelly choose to maximise $\mathbb {E} [\log G]$ rather than simply maximising $\mathbb {E} [G]$? What is the rationale behind this choice?


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